In November 2002, the seller was asked the following about a #30A offered in lot 1396059422 out of the first batch of listings:
Got a question for you. The stamp in this auction seems to have been bought by "chickfrdstk" on eBay October 19 (lot 1389420945). Check the cancels out--they are identical. Someone seems to have repaired the hole in the stamp however. Was it you? Is it really true that your family nagged you into selling "duplicates"? This seems to be an untruthful statement on your part, since this stamp was purchased by someone less than three weeks ago.
Can you explain for me?
The brief reply of:
"don't have a clue, and the nagging persits"
indicates to me that the seller is pretending ignorance of the alteration and is defending his storyline.
At the same time, a bidder expressed concern to the seller that an item supposedly in the seller's possession for years had in fact been bought only days before. He received the following response:
"Provenance affects the value of an item??? Perhaps if it belonged to Jackie Kennedy, or some other famous person, but unfortunately I'm not famous. Because my family wants me to sell this item, that makes it worth more than if they didn't want me to sell this item?? They have been after me for years to do so, where is it said I stopped buying or even intend to stop buying??? And if it was bought last Tuesday instead of three Tuesdays ago, would that make it better, or worse?? And if, as you seem to imply, buying an item on ebay devaluates an item, why are you bidding on Ebay. And the stamp is listed as being faulty. Nothing about your comments makes any sense or has any relevance to anything that deals with reality. But, to each his own......"